Psychiatry

May 29th, 2021

Depression 2

A 45-year-old woman presents with loss of energy, reduced interest, and persistent low mood for 3 months. She has had two similar episodes within the last 10 years, both of which resolved with pharmacological management. Her assessment reveals absence of suicidal ideation or psychotic symptoms. She does not have marked psychomotor retardation or any other risks to herself such as refusal of drinks or meals. She has not had any manic or hypomanic episodes in the past.


Which of the following is the best next step in her management?

Want to continue practicing?

Subscribe to Clinical Odyssey today.
  • Enjoy unlimited access to 600+ learning modules.
  • Safely improve your skills, anytime and anywhere.
  • Get answers to your follow-up questions from practicing physicians.
Learn more ➜