Last updated on:October 18th, 2020
You’re looking at a multiple-choice question from QBank Prepper (the newest of four distinct learning formats available in Clinical Odyssey). Try it out, and have fun improving your clinical skills.
A 66-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a 2-hour history of crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left shoulder. His pulse is 100/min and blood pressure is 85/50 mmHg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 92%. His peripheries are cold. An ECG shows deep symmetric T-wave inversion in the lateral leads. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?