Last updated on:May 12th, 2022
You’re looking at a multiple-choice question from QBank Prepper (the newest of four distinct learning formats available in Clinical Odyssey). Try it out, and have fun improving your clinical skills.
A 45-year-old woman presents with loss of energy, reduced interest, and persistent low mood for 3 months. She has had two similar episodes within the last 10 years, both of which resolved with pharmacological management. Her assessment reveals absence of suicidal ideation or psychotic symptoms. She does not have marked psychomotor retardation or any other risks to herself such as refusal of drinks or meals. She has not had any manic or hypomanic episodes in the past.
Which of the following is the best next step in her management?