Last updated on:December 20th, 2023
You’re looking at a multiple-choice question from QBank Prepper (the newest of four distinct learning formats available in Clinical Odyssey). Try it out, and have fun improving your clinical skills.
A 60-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation comes to the emergency department with sudden onset severe headache and difficulty speaking. His medications include lisinopril, dronedarone, and apixaban. Noncontrast head CT reveals a cerebellar hemorrhage with a volume of 18 mL, causing brain stem compression and hydrocephalus. The patient's blood pressure is 190/100 mm Hg, and his international normalized ratio (INR) is within normal limits.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management?